IT6223 - Data Communications and Networking 2
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Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is
an IP address conflict? |
The
address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved. |
|
Which two network parameters are used by EIGRP as metrics to select the
best path to reach a network? |
2 & 5 |
|
What is the best practice relative to switch port modes? |
Do not use the dynamic auto or
dynamic desirable. |
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In the Switch port LED status, if the LED is blinking green what is the
status of switch? |
There is an activity and the port
is sending or receiving data. |
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Which of the following is the command to configure the switch default
gateway with IP address of 172.10.90.1? |
Ip default-gateway 172.10.90.1 |
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The ________________ switches do not support features or options beyond
those that originally came with the switch. |
Fixed configuration |
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What is the default administrative distance of OSPF? |
110 |
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Which three statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? |
1, 3, 2005 |
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A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four
vlans in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the
fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance? |
Implement a router-on-a-stick
configuration. |
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Routers support three packet-forwarding mechanisms. These are |
Process, Fast, Cisco Express
Forwarding |
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Which 3 statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? |
1, 3, 2005 |
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The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following tasks? |
1 & 3 |
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Which task does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? |
Assign and renew IP address from
the default pool. |
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Which is the VLAN not tagged by 802.1q? |
Native VLAN |
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Configurations are stored within a VLAN database file, called |
vlan.dat |
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A collection of interconnected switches forms a
_______________________. |
Broadcast domain |
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"Which two statements correctly describe the components of a
router? 1. RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot
sequence. 2. ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules. 3. NVRAM
stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence. 4. Flash
memory does not lose its contents during a reboot. 5. ROM contains the most
current and most complete version of the IOS. 6. Flash contains boot system
commands to identify the location of the IOS" |
2 & 4 |
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OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the three
characteristics of OSPF areas? |
2, 3, 2005 |
|
What is the command to set the IP address (192.168.10.2) and subnet
mask (255.255.0.0) for specific Fast Ethernet interface? |
ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.0.0 |
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Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static
route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used? |
Administrative distance |
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Which of the following 3 methods/types of NAT? |
1, 3, 2005 |
|
Which command is used to configure an IPv6 address on a router
interface so that the router will combine a manually specified network prefix
with an automatically generated interface identifier? |
ipv6 address
ipv6-address/prefix-length eui-64 |
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Which statement are generally considered to be best practices in the
placement of ACLs? (Choose three.) |
Place standard ACLs close to the
destination IP address of the traffic. |
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Refer to the exhibit below. Which two statements about the
configuration of the switch interface are correct? |
1 & 5 |
|
VLAN IDs 1002 through 1005 are reserved for |
All of the Choices |
|
The extended range of VLAN ID is |
between 1006 and 4094 |
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VLANis a switching technology that reduces the size of a broadcast
domain. |
The correct answer is 'True'. |
|
When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never
be assignable to hosts? |
4 & 6 |
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If your routing table has a static, a RIP, and an OSPF route to the
same network, which route will be used to route packets by default? |
Static route |
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Telnet protocol by default uses Port ______. |
23 |
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Which of the following is NOT an element of converged network? |
None of the choices |
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What is the status of the Port speed LED if the LED light is blinking
green? |
The port is operating at 1000 Mbps. |
|
A network associate in Genesis Aerospace Industries has configured OSPF
with the command: |
2, 3, 2006 |
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What two functions describe uses of an access control list? |
3 & 5 |
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Which two features are characteristics of flash memory? |
2 & 3 |
|
Which three features are of OSPF routing protocol? |
1, 3, 2005 |
|
Which command will allow you to see real-time translations on your
router? |
debug ipnat |
|
This is the practice of inserting a VLAN ID into a packet header in
order to identify which VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) the packet belongs
to. |
VLAN tagging |
|
Refer to the diagram below. The network administrator of RMS Overseas
and Employment Agency that has the IP address of 10.0.70.23/25 needs to have
access to the corporate FTP server (10.0.54.5/28). The FTP server is also a
web server that is accessible to all internal employees on networks within
the 10.x.x.x address. No other traffic should be allowed to this server.
Which extended ACL would be used to filter this traffic, and how would this
ACL be applied? |
3 & 5 |
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The _____ switches typically come with different sized chassis that
allow for the installation of different numbers of line card. |
Modular configuration |
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Which statement describe a characteristicof load balancing? |
Load balancing allows a router to
forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network. |
|
In this attack, the attacker exploits a flaw in the Telnet server
software running on the switch that renders the Telnet service unavailable.
This sort of attack prevents an administrator from remotely accessing switch
management functions. This can be combined with other direct attacks on the
network as part of a coordinated attempt to prevent the network administrator
from accessing core devices during the breach. |
Telnet DoS attack |
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Which statement describes a difference between the operation of inbound
and outbound ACLs? |
Inbound ACLs are processed before
the packets are routed while outbound ACLs are processed after the routing is
completed. |
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Which of the following are 3 disadvantages of using NAT? |
1, 3, 2005 |
|
What is the purpose of the DHCP server? |
to provide an IP configuration
information to hosts |
|
Refer to the graphic. It has been decided that PC1 should be denied
access to Server. Which 2 of the following commands are required to prevent
only PC1 from accessing Server1 while allowing all other traffic to flow
normally? |
2 & 3 |
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Sometimes switch ports must manually have their duplex mode manually
configured. This duplex mode increases effective bandwidth by allowing both
ends of a connection to transmit and receive data simultaneously. |
Full duplex mode |
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Which of the following statement is INCORRECT? |
A switch populates the MAC address
table based on destination MAC addresses. |
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What are the two main types of access control lists (ACLs)? |
1 and 3 |
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Which of the following is NOT a benefit of VLAN? |
Dividing Layer 1,2 and 3 networks
into multiple physical workgroups reduces unnecessary traffic on the network
and boosts performance. |
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Which IPv4 address range covers all IP addresses that match the ACL
filter specified by 172.16.2.0 with wildcard mask 0.0.1.255? |
172.16.2.0 to 172.16.3.255 |
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Which of the statements describe characteristic of load balancing? |
Load balancing allows a router to
forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network. |
|
Which statement is true regarding routing metrics? |
Routers compare metrics to
determine the best path. |
|
What is the status of the Port speed LED if the LED light is green? |
The port is operating at 100 Mbps. |
|
"The primary functions of a router are the following? 1. Packet
switching 2. Flow control 3. Domain name resolution 4. Path selection 5.
Microsegmentation" |
1 & 4 |
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The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following 2 tasks? |
1 & 3 |
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Refer to the exhibit. A junior network engineer in one of the biggest
telecom company in the Philippines has prepared the exhibited configuration
file. What two statements are true of the planned configuration for interface
fa0/1? |
2 & 5 |
|
The AJ company has a small network. The network consists of one switch
and one router. The switch has been configured with two VLANs. The router has
been configured as a router-on- a-stick to allow inter-VLAN routing. A trunk
is configured to connect the switch to the router. Whatis the minimum number
of router subinterfaces that are required for all the VLANs to communicate? |
two |
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A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full
duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the
effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch? |
An additional broadcast domain will
be created. |
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Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in
the command to configure OSPF on a router? |
3 & 4 |
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Which command will create a dynamic pool named Todd that will provide
you with 30 global addresses? |
ip nat pool Todd 171.16.10.65
171.16.10.94 net 255.255.255.224 |
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Which of the following describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol? |
Dynamic Trunking Protocol is
disable by default. |
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This memory provides temporary storage for various applications and
processes, including the running IOS, the running configuration file, IP
routing table, Ethernet ARP table. |
RAM |
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"Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of
administrative distance and metric? 1. The metric varies depending which
Layer 3 protocol is being routed, such as IP. 2. A router first installs
routes with higher administrative distances. 3. The value of the
administrative distance can not be altered by the network administrator. 4.
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path. 5.
Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
6. The metric is always determined based on hop count." |
4 & 5 |
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To troubleshoot issues when a trunk is not forming or when VLAN leaking
is occurring, what command to be used to check whether the local and peer
native VLANs match? |
show interfaces trunk |
|
This type of attack takes advantage of the way that hardware on most
switches operates. Most switches perform only one level of 802.1Q de-
encapsulation, which allows an attacker to embed a hidden 802.1Q tag inside
the frame. |
Double Tagging Attack |
|
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to HTTP traffic coming from the
Internet that is destined for 172.12.12.10 if the traffic is processed by
this ACL? |
Traffic will be dropped, because of
the implicit deny all at the end of the ACL. |
|
PAT Address Translation is also termed what? |
NAT Overload |
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Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single
link? |
802.1q & ISL |
|
A type of VLAN that is configured to carry user-generated traffic. |
Data VLAN |
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Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco
routers? |
Bandwidth |
|
Which item represents the standard IP ACL? |
access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1
0.0.0.255 |
|
What is the command to configure the interface to automatically
negotiate speed with the connected device? |
speed auto |
|
This memory stores router bootup instructions and basic diagnostic
software. |
ROM |
|
Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP? |
If an address conflict is detected,
the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused until the server
is rebooted. |
|
Which of the following would be a good starting point for
troubleshooting if your router is not translating? |
Check your interfaces for the
correct configuration. |
|
Which IPv6 ACL command entry will permit traffic from any host to an
SMTP server on network 2001:DB8:10:10::/64? |
Permit tcp any host
2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 25 |
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Which command would you place on interface connected to the Internet? |
ip nat outside |
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Which command will show you the summary of the NAT configuration? |
show ip nat statistics |
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As a network administrator, you have been instructed to prevent all
traffic originating on the LAN from entering the R2 router. Which the
following command would implement the access list on the interface of the R2
router? |
ip access-group 101 in |
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What is one feature that distinguishes routers from Layer 2 switches? |
Routers support a variety of
interface types. Switches typically support Ethernet interfaces. |
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Which of the following statement is INCORRECT? |
When selecting the type of switch,
rack units should always be considered. Rack units is the number ports
available in the network switch. |
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Which command would you place on interface on a private network? |
ip nat inside |
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Which protocolis used to configure trunking on a switch? |
802.1q |
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Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all
access lists? |
Show access-lists |
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The following access list below was applied outbound on the E0
interface connected to the 192.169.1.8/29 LAN: |
All traffic exiting E0 will be
denied |
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Router On Stick is a method used for communicating inter-vlan using a
router. |
The correct answer is 'True'. |
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Which of the following describes a VLAN? |
None of the choices |
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If your routing table has a static, a RIP, and an IGRP route to the
same network, which route will be used to route packets by default? |
Static route |
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Global configuration mode is used to configure system globally, or to
enter specific configuration modes to configure specific elements such as protocols.
What is the command to enter global configuration mode? |
configure terminal |
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Which of the following would be good reasons to run NAT? |
1, 2 and 4 |
|
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator that has the IP address
of 10.0.70.23/25 needs to have access to the corporate FTP server
(10.0.54.5/28). The FTP server is also a web server that is accessible to all
internal employees on networks within the 10.x.x.x address. No other traffic
should be allowed to this server. Which extended ACL would be used to filter
this traffic, and how would this ACL be applied? |
3 & 5 |
|
What type of DHCP attack where in an attacker configures a fake DHCP
server on the network to issue DHCP addresses to clients. The normal reason
for this attack is to force the clients to use false Domain Name System (DNS)
or Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS) servers and to make the clients use
the attacker, or a machine under the control of the attacker, as their
default gateway. |
DHCP spoofing attack |
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"Refer to the exhibit. According to the routing table, where will
the router send a packet destined for 10.1.5.65? Network Interface Next-hop
10.1.1.0/24 e0 directly connected 10.1.2.0/24 e1 directly connected
10.1.3.0/25 s0 directly connected 10.1.4.0/24 s1 directly connected 10.1.5.0/24
e0 10.1.1.2 10.1.5.64/28 e1 10.1.2.2 10.1.5.64/29 s0 10.1.3.3 10.1.5.64/27 s1
10.1.4.4" |
10.1.3.3 |
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What are two benefits of using NAT? |
1 & 5 |
|
The following are VLAN best practices EXCEPT? |
Join native VLAN to VLAN. |
|
What is the command to assign the port to a particular VLAN when the
interface is in access mode? |
switchport access vlanvlan-id |
|
In the Switch port LED status, if the LED is blinking green what is the
status of switch? |
There is activity and the port is
sending or receiving data. |
|
Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP? |
If an address conflict is detected,
the address is removed from the pool and an administrator must resolve the
conflict. |
|
This is used to connect a PC to the console port of a switch for
configuration. |
Console cable |
|
Stackable that are arranged one on top of the other with cables linking
the switches in a _____________ connection. |
Daisy Chain |
|
Which of the following is the command to specify a VLAN name? Name of
VLAN is employee. |
name employee |
|
This is the path over which the data is transferred in a network. It
describes how the network devices appear connected to network users. |
logical topology |
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What route would have the lowest administrative distance? |
A directly connected network |
|
"To enable network access to a remote destination, what three
pieces of information must be configured on a host? 1. default gateway 2.
hostname 3. DNS server address 4. DHCP server address 5. IP address 6. subnet
mask" |
1, 5, 2006 |
|
How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP address to host? |
Addresses are leased to host. A
host will usually keep the same address by periodically contacting the DHCP
sever to renew the lease. |
|
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback
address that is configured on RouterB? |
2 & 3 |
|
If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6
traffic, how many ACLs could be created and applied to it? |
8 |
|
Which command will show you all the translations active on your router? |
show ip nat translations |
|
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement are true about interVLAN routing
in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? |
The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on
Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces. |
|
Which command is used to determine if an IP access list is enabled on a
particular interface? |
Show ip interface |
|
This is the arrangement of the cables, network devices, and end
systems. It describes how the network devices are actually interconnected
with wires and cables. |
physical topology |
|
The ip helper-address command does what? |
Relays a DHCP request across
networks |
|
Which command would you place on interface connected to the Internet? |
ipnat outside |
|
How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP address to host? |
Addresses are allocated after a
negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length of the
agreement. |
|
This layer provide fault isolation and high-speed backbone onnectivity. |
Core layer |
|
A switch forwarding method that makes a forwarding decision on a frame
after it has received the entire frame and then checked the frame for errors. |
Store-and-forward switching |
|
A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an
established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not
appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information
in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing
this problem? |
The network wildcard mask is
configured improperly. |
|
The primary functions of a router are the following? |
1 & 4 |
|
Which version of NAT allows many hosts inside a private network to
simultaneously use a single inside global address for connecting to the
Internet? |
PAT |
|
This layer provide fault isolation and high-speed backbone
connectivity. |
Core layer |
|
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as
shown. When the administrator checks the status of the serial interface, the
interface is shown as being administratively down. What additional command
must be entered on the serial interface of R1 to bring the interface up? |
no shutdown |
|
This is a protocol that is used to synchronize the clocks of computer
systems over packet-switched, variable-latency data networks. |
Network Time Protocol |
|
Which command will allow you to see real-time translations on your
router? |
debug ip nat |
|
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF
and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? |
1 & 4 |
|
What is the command used to determine the status of both physical and
virtual interfaces including IP address? |
show ip interface brief |
|
Which of the following is NOT a characteristics of a network? |
All of the choices |
|
Which two commands are required to properly configure a router to run
OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? |
1 & 4 |
|
Which two characteristics are shared by both standard and extended
ACLs? |
3 & 5 |
|
Which are the 2 trunking protocols? |
ISL & IEEE 802.1q |
|
Which command will show you the summary of the NAT configuration? |
show ipnat statistics |
|
This is a point-to-point link between two network devices that carries
more than one VLAN. |
Trunks |
|
What type of DHCP attack where in an attacker floods the DHCP server
with DHCP requests to use all the available IP addresses that the DHCP server
can issue. After these IP addresses are issued, the server cannot issue any
more addresses, and this situation produces a denial-of-service (DoS)
attackas new clients cannot obtain network access. |
DHCP starvation attack |
|
What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add
network 10.1.1.0 /24 to area 0? |
"router ospf 1 network
10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0" |
|
"Which two network parameters are used by EIGRP as metrics to
select the best path to reach a network? 1. Jitter 2. bandwidth 3. resiliency
4. hop count 5. delay 6. confidentiality" |
2 & 5 |
|
If all OSPF routers in a single area are configured with the same
priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the
absence of a loopback interface? |
the highest IP address among its active
interfaces |
|
Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is
true? |
You can configure one access list,
per direction, per layer 3 protocol |
|
Which command will show you all the translations active on your router? |
show ipnat translations |
|
As a network administrator of RMS Aerospace Industries, you have been
instructed to prevent all traffic originating on the LAN from entering the R2
router. Which the following command would implement the access list on the
interface of the R2 router? |
ip access-group 101 in |
|
When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never
be assignable to hosts? |
3 & 6 |
|
This is used between a network device and server or other device that
is equipped with an appropriate 802.1Q-capable NIC. |
Trunks |
|
The following are VLAN best practices EXCEPT? |
None of the choices |
|
What is the command to create a VLAN with a valid VLAN ID number 30? |
Vlan 30 |
|
Which two statements about static NAT translations are true? |
1 & 2 |
|
Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs? |
They filter traffic based on source
IP addresses only. |
|
Refer to the exhibit. The user at Workstation B reports that Server A
cannot be reached. What is preventing Workstation B from reaching Server A? |
The gateway for Server A is not on
the same subnet. |
|
In troubleshooting VLANs, what command should be used to check whether
the port belongs to the expected VLAN? |
show vlan |
|
From the following list of IP addresses configured
on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID? |
192.168.0.1 |
|
Refer to the exhibit. What routing solution will
allow both PC A and PC B to access the Internet with the minimum amount of
router CPU and network bandwidth utilization? |
Configure a static
default route from R1 to Edge, a default route from Edge to the Internet, and
a static route from Edge to R1 |
|
Which series of commands will configure router R1
for LAN-to-LAN communication with router R2? |
A. R1(config)#
interface ethernet 0 D. R1(config)#
interface serial 0 F. R1(config)# router
rip |
|
OSPF is configured using default classful
addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks
will be in the routing table of R1
that are indicated to be learned by OSPF ? |
4 |
|
Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the give
configurations to R1 and R2 you notice that OSPFv3 fails to start. Which reason for the problem is most likely true? |
The area numbers on R1
and R2 are mismatched |
|
Which of the following HSRP router states does an
active router enter when it is preempted by a higher priority router? |
Speak |
|
Host is able to ping a web server but it is not
able to do HTTP request. |
ACL blocking port 80 |
|
Refer to the exhibit. What commands must be
configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between
host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.) |
The option wherein
there’s the encapsulation dot1q and switchport mode trunk |
|
Which two statements describe characteristics of
IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.) |
Global addresses start
with 2000::/3. There is only one
loopback address and it is ::1. |
|
Which three statements about VTP features are
true? (Choose three.) |
When properly
configured, VTP minimizes VLAN misconfigurations and configuration
inconsistencies. VTP pruning is used to
increase available bandwidth in trunk links. |
|
Which two statements describe a routed switch port
on a multilayer switch? (Choose two) |
The port is not
associated with any VLAN The routed switch port
is used when a switch has only one port per VLAN or subnet |
|
Which routing protocol was designed by the
International Organization for Standardization (ISO)? |
IS-IS |
|
Which routing protocol uses both bandwidth and
delay to determine the best pathway to reach a remote network? |
EIGRP |
|
Which classless routing protocol supports VLSM and
CIDR, supports manual route summarization, and uses the multicast address
224.0.0.9? |
RIPv2 |
|
What are two situations where an OSPF router would
send out a link-state packet (LSP)? (Choose two.) |
1. during the initial startup
of the routing protocol process |
|
Which routing protocol uses the DUAL algorithm and
sends multicast messages to propagate routing updates? |
EIGRP |
|
Which operation feature is different between EIGRP
and RIP? |
EIGRP stores all routes
learned from neighbors in a topology table. |
|
Which interior routing protocol uses
protocol-dependent modules (PDMs)? |
EIGRP |
|
What are two characteristics of link-state
protocols compared to distance vector protocols? (Choose two.) |
1. They require a lot
of hardware resources. |
|
Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello
packets? (Choose two.) |
1. They are used to
maintain neighbor relationships. |
|
Which algorithm is used by the OSPF routing
process to construct the SPF tree on a router? |
Dijkstra's algorithm |
|
Which routing protocol uses the Diffusing Update
Algorithm to install routes into the routing table? |
EIGRP |
|
What loop prevention technique is implemented by
distance vector routing protocols? |
split horizon |
|
Which two routing protocols are classified as
link-state protocols? (Choose two.) |
1. OSPF |
|
How can a network administrator reduce SPF
overhead on OSPF routers? |
Implement multiple
areas of OSPF. |
|
What is an advantage of OSPF compared to RIP? |
Fast convergence |
|
The _____________ parameter can be added to the
show interfaces interface_id command to display the administrative and
operational switch interface mode. |
switchport |
|
A network administrator enters the following
command sequence on a Cisco 3560 switch. What is the purpose of these
commands? Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 0/1 |
to make the Gi0/1 port
a routed port |
|
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has
configured router CiscoVille with the above commands to provide inter-VLAN
routing. What type of port will be required on a switch that is connected to
Gi0/0 on router CiscoVille to allow inter-VLAN routing? |
trunk port |
|
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is
troubleshooting a router-on-a-stick network that should have the following
requirements: VLAN ID Network Subnet mask Subinterface Default
Gateway |
1. The VLAN ID for
VLAN 30 is wrongly configured. |
|
Refer to the exhibit. Access1 is a new switch that
is to be connected as a VTP client to the network once it has been
configured. Given the output generated by the VTP server switch Dist-2, which
series of configuration commands would successfully introduce the client
switch into the VTP domain? |
Access1(config)# vtp
mode client |
|
Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly
describes the function of a switch that is configured in VTP transparent
mode? |
option 4 |
|
An administrator is investigating a failure on a
trunk link between a Cisco switch and a switch from another vendor. After a
few show commands, the administrator notices that the the switches are not
negotiating a trunk. What is a probable cause for this issue? |
Switches from other
vendors do not support DTP. |
|
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a
lab environment and later inserted into the production network. Before the
trunk link was connected between SW1 and SW2, the network administrator
issued the show vtp status command as displayed in the exhibit. Immediately after
the switches were interconnected, all users lost connectivity to the network.
What could be a possible reason for the problem? |
Switch SW2 has a
higher VTP revision number, which causes deletion of the VLAN information in
the VTP domain. |
|
Which sentence correctly describes the SVI
inter-VLAN routing method? |
An SVI is needed for
each VLAN. |
|
Which type of VLAN is identified by a VLAN ID
between 1006 and 4094 and not contained in updates of switches participating
in a VTP domain? |
extended |
|
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is
configuring RT1 for inter-VLAN routing. The switch is configured correctly
and is functional. Host1, Host2, and Host3 cannot communicate with each
other. Based on the router configuration, what is causing the problem? |
IP addresses on the
subinterfaces are incorrectly matched to the VLANs |
|
Which combination of DTP modes set on adjacent
switches will cause the link to become an access link instead of a trunk
link? |
dynamic auto - dynamic
auto |
|
Which scalable method must be implemented in order
to provide inter-VLAN routing on a switched network with more than 1000
VLANs? |
routing traffic
internally to a Layer 3 switch device |
|
What is the purpose of VTP? |
It provides
centralized management of VLANs in a multi-switch environment. |
|
A PC is to access a web server on another network.
Which inter-VLAN method will provide the highest bandwidth at Layer 3 and
also provide a default gateway for the PC? |
router-on-a-stick |
|
What are two advantages of EtherChannel? (Choose
two.) |
1. Configuring the
EtherChannel interface provides consistency in the configuration of the
physical links. |
|
Which two parameters must match on the ports of
two switches to create a PAgP EtherChannel between the switches? (Choose
two.) |
1. speed |
|
A network administrator is analyzing the features
that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which
statement is a feature that is associated with GLBP? |
GLBP allows load
balancing between routers. |
|
What are two load-balancing methods in the
EtherChannel technology? (Choose two.) |
1. source IP to
destination IP |
|
When EtherChannel is configured, which mode will force
an interface into a port channel without exchanging aggregation protocol
packets? |
on |
|
When EtherChannel is implemented, multiple
physical interfaces are bundled into which type of logical connection? |
port channel |
|
A network administrator is analyzing first-hop
router redundancy protocols. What is a characteristic of VRRPv3? |
It supports IPv6 and
IPv4 addressing. |
|
When a range of ports is being configured for
EtherChannel, which mode will configure LACP on a port only if the port
receives LACP packets from another device? |
passive |
|
Which command will start the process to bundle two
physical interfaces to create an EtherChannel group via LACP? |
channel-group 2 mode
auto |
|
Refer to the exhibit. Which switching technology
would allow data to be transmitted over each access layer switch link and
prevent the port from being blocked by spanning tree due to the redundant
link? |
EtherChannel |
|
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is
reviewing the configuration of switch S1. Which protocol has been implemented
to group multiple physical ports into one logical link? |
PAgP |
|
As the network administrator you have been asked
to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this
configuration consist of? |
grouping multiple
physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches |
|
A network administrator is analyzing the features
that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which
statement describes a feature that is associated with HSRP? |
HSRP uses active and
standby routers. |
|
Which two channel group modes would place an
interface in a negotiating state using PAgP? (Choose two.) |
1. desirable |
|
A network administrator configured an EtherChannel
link with three interfaces between two switches. What is the result if one of
the three interfaces is down? |
The remaining two
interfaces continue to load balance traffic. |
|
Which mode configuration setting would allow
formation of an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 without
sending negotiation traffic? |
SW1: on |
|
What is a characteristic of out-of-band device
management? |
It requires a terminal
emulation client. |
|
Which type of router would an enterprise use to
allow customers to access content anytime and anyplace, regardless of whether
they are at home or work? |
network edge routers |
|
Fill in the blank. |
Port Density |
|
How much traffic is a 48-port gigabit switch
capable of switching when operating at full wire speed? |
48 Gb/s, by providing
full bandwidth to each port |
|
Which network design solution will best extend
access layer connectivity to host devices? |
implementing wireless
connectivity |
|
Match the design model layer to the appropriate
network function. (Not all options are used.) |
1. Core Layer: provides
a high-speed backbone link between dispersed networks |
|
Fill in the blank. |
broadcast |
|
Which technology is required when switched
networks are designed to include redundant links? |
Spanning Tree Protocol
(STP) |
|
Which two methods help to prevent the disruption
of network services? (Choose two.) |
1. installing
duplicate equipment to provide failover services |
|
What is the function of PoE pass-through? |
function of PoE
pass-through? allows switches,
phones, and wireless access points to receive power over existing Ethernet
cables from an upstream switch |
|
Which two types of connections can be used for
out-of-band configuration for a Cisco IOS network device? (Choose two.) |
1. console |
|
Which feature could be used in a network design to
increase the bandwidth by combining multiple physical links into a single
logical link? |
EtherChannel |
|
A company has deployed four 48-port access layer
switches to a switch block. For redundancy each access layer switch will connect
to two distribution layer |
176 |
|
What is the term that is used for the area of a
network that is affected when a device or network service experiences
problems? |
Failure domain |
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